Thinking about last Sunday's account in Matthew's gospel where Jesus encounters the tempter raises the following questions: Was Jesus able not to sin? or Was Jesus unable to sin? What do you think?
It might be easier to relate to the first, being able not to sin. It's probably something we've managed just as an act of will like, no chocolate in Lent or, daily prayer and study.
The second, unable to sin, sounds more like a transcendant quality or even a loss of that all important free will, God forbid!
But such either / or questions are somewhat one-dimensional in their assumptions about reality and Jesus was by no means one-dimensional. In fact, his frequent references to the Kingdom of God and the Kingdom of Heaven, may suggest that his reality included something like a fourth dimension that allowed him to see from here to eternity.
Paul Tillich described our humanity at its best as a multidimensional unity, which may provide a way into understanding an inability to sin.
Speaking of dimensionality you might want to check the website http://www.360tr.com/kudus/kiyamet_eng/index.html
Bob Stephenson
What is your definition of sin? If it is "separation from God," then Jesus, who is "one being with the Father" in the Nicene Creed is never separated from God. So he would be unable to sin. Whenever I hear someone say that we must ask "what would Jesus do," they are refusing to admit that we could never do exactly what Jesus does. We cannot be "one being with the Father" like Jesus was.
ReplyDeleteBruce Calvin
The traditional definition of SIN is separation from God, with sins being the particular "symptoms". In fact the Greek and Aramaic (and Hebrew) roots have various meanings ranging from "missing the mark", in archery, to indebtedness, in commerce (thus, "forgive us our debts"). Bonhoeffer's discussion of the Genesis account of Adam and Eve in the Garden comes close to what I think: Sin is Hubris, or the prideful arrogance of assuming that we see what God sees and can therefore judge for ourselves between Good and Evil. I also try to avoid the WWJD? stuff, but find it helpful when speaking about Jesus' relationship to S/sin to distinguish between Jesus of Nazareth and Jesus Who Is The Christ of God (Borg's pre and post Easter Jesus). Even so, given our "condition" (Sin), what can we really say about either with certainty or any to claim to know. But don't get me started! Bob
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